Since I know someone will ask the question, I'll put myself out there . . . Wouldn't a defensive player challenging in this case constitute the attacker actively involved with the play? I get that if the foul happens across the field, there's no active involvement (and we probably also have a VC red). However, couldn't the justification be made that since the defender is challenging that the attacker is now active? I'll now grab my popcorn as I hear the responses.