Match #15 - Portugal v. Ghana

What am I missing here? The 3 teams you've mentioned have all won a WC since 2006, each of those teams also have more WC wins than Italy since 2006. So what are you saying exactly?

 

Speaking of the Devil: VAR Failed again in the Qatar match, not calling an obvious penalty.

 

He doesn't understand the word "since".

 

These statements of yours have different meanings.


"If my team had only 1 WC win since 2006 I'd be miserable too".

"missing two world cups"

My silly response to the first statement was that Spain, Germany and France have also only won 1 WC since 2006. Should they be bitter too?

then

How should teams who haven't won since 2006 feel then?

What I'm saying my five year old son understands.

If you want to cut out 2006, sure. Whatever your new angle is, I agree...lol

 

You don't understand "If my team had only 1 WC win since 2006 I'd be miserable too".

Obviously he didn't even know what he was trying to say other than admitting he's miserable.

He said assume that Calabrese8 is miserable. So I guess they both can have a hug.

 

It's not a new angle.

"If my team had only 1 WC win since 2006 I'd be miserable too"...

I took that to mean Italy has only won 1 match in the World Cup since (after) 2006.
1 win (2-1 v England in 2014)
2 draws
3 defeats

 

Everyone wishes they 'only' had won a World Cup since 2006.
Spain (finally) has theirs so I'm happy.

 

You can take it to mean that. WC win is very broad. It reads World Cup Win, possibly tournament, it never specified match.

If that's what he meant, he communicated it poorly.

 

1. An upper limb of the human body, connecting the hand and wrist to the shoulder.

So what is your argument for ignoring that a foot and leg were offside in the other example?

 

Point being...

... the arm is not considered offside. That's all I was getting at.
Done with this match/thread. More futbol to watch and enjoy.

 

Run off if you must. Been watching this whole time

 

May I ask how you received that yellow card?

 

The Argentinian goal called back was for the slimmest of margins, was it not?

The actual point was that if you call an offside in one circumstance, you'll have to call it in another (foot was the example I used). Both are offside. Who's arguing that?

 

I'd be happy to explain, but first may I ask why does it matter?

 

Argentina, yes.
Not convinced Portugal was.

 

I can't even understand how it would be an insult to only won 1 entire WC since 2006 when most teams will never win. I mean seriously, how did you misinterpret something so obvious?

 

It's for trolling the refereeing forum. I follow there as well.
And I feel you're trolling here too.

 

I asked if there was any recourse on the ref who missed two obvious PK's in the Canada/Belgium game, in the very least not being given another assignment

Those two poor calls were another example of VAR not being used. Hence my argument that VAR is inconsistent in it's use, and I'm right about that. You do know it, like the others who like to call people a "sad sack of sh1t" or "short bus riders" because they can't cope with any criticism.

Using some of the logic on display here, some might say I hate Belgium. Hardly.

Your feelings don't really interest me. Calling someone a troll because they don't agree with you is an easy way out, isn't it?

What do you think of posters calling others "sad sack of shit" or "riding the short bus"

All Good according to community rules?

@soccernutter

 

@unclesox
Since you're still here going off on a tangent...maybe you'd be interested?