[nutbar]

If a World Cup knock-out game needed to be decided but finished tied after 120 minutes before 1982, would they have played a replay the next day or soon after?

Or would they have tossed a coin? Like at the 1968 European championships??

[wufc]

Originally Posted by vanderven

If a World Cup knock-out game needed to be decided but finished tied after 120 minutes before 1982, would they have played a replay the next day or soon after?

Or would they have tossed a coin? Like at the 1968 European championships??

Yep, the coin toss. Thank god it never came down to it, though many times it's been close (imagine if the 66 final ended 2-2).

[ThreeApples]

Originally Posted by wufc

Yep, the coin toss. Thank god it never came down to it, though many times it's been close (imagine if the 66 final ended 2-2).

In 1966, it would have been replayed. I think that for the final match, the rule was replay until 1978. In 1974 and 1978 the final and 3rd place matches were the only knockout matches. I'm not sure what rule was in effect for 1970. Before 1982, there had not been a World Cup knockout match tied after extra time since 1938. (They used replays in all rounds back then.)

In EURO 68, they used a coin toss to decide the Italy-USSR semifinal, and a replay to decide the final (Italy-Yugoslavia), which was also a draw.

[geego]

In 1982 there was still replay of the final - the penalty kicks only applied to the semifinals. Had the final ended in a tie, the teams would have had to travel 600 Km to play again in Barcelona.

[RichardL]

They did think they might have had to draw lots to see who went through between England and West Germany in the second stage though. They drew 0-0 in the first game, then West Germany beat Spain. Had England beaten Spain by the same score (if only Keegan had sprayed a bit more lacquer on his perm that morning) then it would have been "lots".

[lanman]

Lots were actually used at the 1990 World Cup to determine second and third place between Ireland and Holland in their group. Had England and Egypt drawn 1-1 then lots would have been used to determine the entire group order.

[sidis]

in early 1900's the team with more corner kicks win.

[unclesox]

Originally Posted by geego

In 1982 there was still replay of the final - the penalty kicks only applied to the semifinals. Had the final ended in a tie, the teams would have had to travel 600 Km to play again in Barcelona.

And iirc the replay would've been played on Tuesday, two days after the Bernabeu final.
I believe 1986 was the last time the final would've been replayed.
I know 1990 would've went to penalties.

I've read the 1970 quarterfinal between Uruguay and USSR would've gone to the drawing of lots had Uruguay not scored.

[Sagy]

Originally Posted by unclesox

I've read the 1970 quarterfinal between Uruguay and USSR would've gone to the drawing of lots had Uruguay not scored.

I remember the same.

If we look at the Mexico City Olympics two years earlier, Bulgaria advanced to the Semi-Finals after "wining" a coin toss over Israel in the Quarter-finals (game ended 1:1).

[Dida]

I went to high school in Texas, and I would like to know how other states in the United States operate penalty shootouts. In Texas, we use the old-MLS/NASL way, where we start from about 35 yards out, and have about 5 seconds to get a shot off.

Do you think this way would be a favorable alternative to the way they are presently handled?