Why did Argentina refuse to play in '38, '50 and '54?

[eugene]

just watched the video on the AFA official site on Argentina and the World Cup.

1. why did Argentina refuse to play in 1938, 1950 and 1954? I guess in 1950 Peron did not want to lend any prestige the the World Cup in Brasil (then headed by Peron's rival for continental leadership, Getulio Vargas), but i don't understand the rational for the others.

2. Why did Argentiina fail to qualify for 1970? I realize that was, in retrospect a great Peru team (Nene Cubillas, Ramon Mifflin, Chumpitaz etc etc)., but Argentina was coming off all the success at the club level in the Libertadores.

[MidnightMarauder]

[QUOTE=eugene]just watched the video on the AFA official site on Argentina and the World Cup.

1. why did Argentina refuse to play in 1938, 1950 and 1954? I guess in 1950 Peron did not want to lend any prestige the the World Cup in Brasil (then headed by Peron's rival for continental leadership, Getulio Vargas), but i don't understand the rational for the others.

QUOTE]




Argentina didn't play in 1938 in response/boycott to the europeans refusal (most of europe) to participate in the first WC.


From what I can remember of what my uncles told me there was some political issue between Argentina and Brasil leading up to the 1950 WC so Peron did not allow the team to play in that WC.

[hoss23]

Regarding the 54 Cup, it is my understanding that Peron saw the devastation in Brazil when is lost in 50 and he did not want something similar to happen in Argentina.

This is based on the History of Football documentary.