ZeekLTK
18 May 2006, 03:21 AM
Just wondering... why did Scotland withdraw from the 1950 World Cup after they had already qualified for it?
They would have been in Uruguay's group, and it looks like they weren't too bad (only lost to England 1-0 in qualifiers and beat both Wales and Northern Ireland pretty good, 2-0 and 8-2) so there might have been a chance of beating them... which would have changed the course of history since Uruguay-Brazil would have never happened, it would have been Scotland-Brazil.
They would have been in Uruguay's group, and it looks like they weren't too bad (only lost to England 1-0 in qualifiers and beat both Wales and Northern Ireland pretty good, 2-0 and 8-2) so there might have been a chance of beating them... which would have changed the course of history since Uruguay-Brazil would have never happened, it would have been Scotland-Brazil.