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View Full Version : Relegated Teams in UEFA Cup?


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unclesox
14 May 2006, 07:59 PM
On another note, In Holland the 2nd Ajax team, "Young Ajax" (backed up with players returning from injury), participates in the Cup where they reached the semi's a few years back. Pretty funny, Ajax was playing in the other semi, so it was nearly an Ajax - Young Ajax Cupfinal.

What if they qualify for the Uefa cup by reaching the cup final or winning it and the big Ajax qualifies for the CL, would Uefa allow two teams from the same club enter Europe?
I already mentioned Castilla losing to Real Madrid in the 1980 Spanish Cup final. I believe Castilla are Real Madrid's B team, or something along those lines.
So during 1980/81, while RM were in the Champions Cup their B side was in the Cup Winners Cup. So there is precedent.

unclesox
14 May 2006, 08:18 PM
Union Berlin did reach the German Cup final in 2001 and participated in UEFA Cup 2001-2. They were in a German 3rd division in 2001 when they reach the finals. That same year they also advanced to the German 2nd division, so when they played in UEFA they were in the second division (2.Bundesliga). In the UEFA cup they advanced to the second round where they lost to Litex Lovech (Bulgaria) 2:0 on aggregate (0:0 away).
Good trivia. Union being a 3rd division side when they qualified for the UEFA Cup.

I remember in 2000 an amateur 4th division side reached the French Cup final. I think they were called Calais (sp?). They made world headlines and it seemed everyone was rooting for them to pull off the impossible.
Alas, they lost to Nantes 2-1 on a 90th minute penalty. At the final whistle many of players and officials collapsed and broke into tears at having come so close to touching the Coupe. Not to mention European football. :(

spoonman
14 May 2006, 08:24 PM
I already mentioned Castilla losing to Real Madrid in the 1980 Spanish Cup final. I believe Castilla are Real Madrid's B team, or something along those lines.
So during 1980/81, while RM were in the Champions Cup their B side was in the Cup Winners Cup. So there is precedent.

Didn't know that, but the players are probably under contract. The Ajax teams could just excange, think it was possible to let the normal Ajax play the final if they would've lost and the kids won their semi.

unclesox
14 May 2006, 08:40 PM
Didn't know that, but the players are probably under contract. The Ajax teams could just excange, think it was possible to let the normal Ajax play the final if they would've lost and the kids won their semi.
Geez, that wouldn't have been fair. But if the rules allow it... :(

Sagy
14 May 2006, 08:59 PM
I already mentioned Castilla losing to Real Madrid in the 1980 Spanish Cup final. I believe Castilla are Real Madrid's B team, or something along those lines.
So during 1980/81, while RM were in the Champions Cup their B side was in the Cup Winners Cup. So there is precedent.
The big difference is that in 1980/81 it was impossible for the team to face each other in European football. These days, teams from the Champions League do end up playing in UEFA cup (3rd QR losers and 3rd team in the group stage).

In recent years, on several occasions, UEFA stated that they will not allow two teams that are owned by the same entity to play in the same competition.

Peakite
22 May 2006, 05:57 PM
Yes, Gretna , Champions of the Scottish 2nd Division (3rd level) (one year after promotion from the 3rd Division). They lost on penalties in the Scottish Cup Final to Heart of Midlothian, who have already qualified for next year's Champions League. The population of Gretna is only 2,800! Just 4 or 5 years ago, they were playing in the English league system (at level 7).
And it's now two decades since a team from that level competed in European competition (the English 7th level that is).

Auriaprottu
07 Jul 2006, 12:28 AM
Yes, Gretna , Champions of the Scottish 2nd Division (3rd level) (one year after promotion from the 3rd Division). They lost on penalties in the Scottish Cup Final to Heart of Midlothian, who have already qualified for next year's Champions League. The population of Gretna is only 2,800! Just 4 or 5 years ago, they were playing in the English league system (at level 7).

If they're Scottish, why weren't they playing in Scotland? Do the two associations have some sort of exchange program (for want of a better phrase) for the lower levels?

Affliction
17 Aug 2006, 02:39 PM
Celta Vigo reached the last 16 of the Champions League in the same season they were relegated from La Liga.

It would have been hilarious had they won it. Like when Liverpool won the champions league (even though Milan deserved too) and did crappy by their standards in the league. Didn't they come 6th or something?

Scottish_Morton
17 Aug 2006, 03:57 PM
If they're Scottish, why weren't they playing in Scotland? Do the two associations have some sort of exchange program (for want of a better phrase) for the lower levels?

It's because they're right on the border.

The Old Lady Hertha
22 Aug 2006, 11:56 AM
Didn't a club (Union Berlin?) qualify by reaching the German cup final while playing a few divivions lower then the Bundesliga?

They were 2nd division too but lost in the 2nd round to some team, forgot.

ZeekLTK
03 Sep 2006, 07:48 PM
Isn't there a Swedish 2nd division team in the UEFA Cup this year? Åtvidaberg, I think.

They are in the 3rd round and will play Grasshoppers from Switzerland next.