France and Bosman

[Nixxie]

I've been reading through loads of documents and articles regarding the Bosman Ruling and I've understood the concept pretty much.

What I'm feeling to grasp is what France thinks about it. The French National Team is one of the best, having also won the 98 World Cup and the Eurocup in 2000. Nevertheless, when it comes to the individual French teams they're not as good, as certain Italian, Spanish and British teams. So does France agree with the Bosman Ruling or doesn't it? :confused:

Also, as regards the Bosman Ruling, is there any specific rule regarding the amount of national players which should be in each team? I don't think but I'm not quite sure either...

[gaijin]

Your mixing issues up here.

What has the Bosman ruling have to with National teams?

[gaijin]

I've been reading through loads of documents and articles regarding the Bosman Ruling and I've understood the concept pretty much.

What I'm feeling to grasp is what France thinks about it. The French National Team is one of the best, having also won the 98 World Cup and the Eurocup in 2000. Nevertheless, when it comes to the individual French teams they're not as good, as certain Italian, Spanish and British teams. So does France agree with the Bosman Ruling or doesn't it? :confused:

Also, as regards the Bosman Ruling, is there any specific rule regarding the amount of national players which should be in each team? I don't think but I'm not quite sure either...

Before Marc Bosman, a Belgian football player with Liege (I think) players were contracted to clubs under an agreement for a zed number of years. If you wanted to leave, you put in a transfer request and the club sorted out a transfer for you. Clubs also basically held an agreement over you during that period, and if your contract expired you would carrying on playing on the basic level of the previous contract until the club moved you on.

Bosman was out of the 1st team and wanted to move. However the club could not agree a deal with the buyer and he was stuck at Liege, where he wanted to leave. When his deal was up - he was unable to move clubs because Leige could not agree any deals and because he was not playing - his wages dropped.

He sued the club and UEFA for not being able to move on and argued restraint of trade.

They ruled in favour of him and UEFA implemented a system whereby, at the end of the contract, a player can leave the club and become a free agent and sign for whomever he wishes.

As a result of the law changes the high-court ruled that it was also in breach of EU laws which declared the free-movement of people and trade within the member states. This therefore allowed the previous foreign quota (I think it was 2) to be scrapped. Previously, if you were French playing in Belgium you were a foreigner. The new laws now meant that EU players would not be classed as forgeiners and allowed a whole influx of foreign players to come into the game.

So 'Does France agree with the Bosman ruling?' is a vague question.

Does the French FA agree with the principles, has it ruined the French game?, has it helped the game? Are there too many non Frenchman in France - thus having a detrimental impact on the NT?

Is that what you are trying to ask?

[gaijin]

http://www.le.ac.uk/so/css/resources/factsheets/fs16.html

this will help

[Nixxie]

So 'Does France agree with the Bosman ruling?' is a vague question.

Does the French FA agree with the principles, has it ruined the French game?, has it helped the game? Are there too many non Frenchman in France - thus having a detrimental impact on the NT?

Is that what you are trying to ask?

Yes that should have been my question, jumbled up in my explanation earlier. :rolleyes:


And thanks for the link, although I have already seen that site. :)

[sl7vk]

In general, I think that Boseman has hurt smaller clubs, and in general, France has more smaller clubs then the leagues you mentioned.